Jalna ZP Answer key | ZP Answer key 2020 | जालना जिला परिषद प्रश्न पत्र

Jalna District Council Information, Jalna Zilla Parishad Answer key 2018, District Council Question Paper 2020, Where is Jalna Zilla Parishad?, ZP Answer key 2020, Jalna ZP Answer key.

Jalna ZP Answer key | ZP Answer key 2020 | जालना जिला परिषद प्रश्न पत्र

जालना जिला पश्चिमी भारत में महाराष्ट्र राज्य का एक प्रशासनिक जिला है. जालना शहर जिला मुख्यालय है. यह जिला औरंगाबाद संभाग का हिस्सा है. यह जिला मध्य महाराष्ट्र में स्थित है, मराठवाड़ा क्षेत्र के उत्तर में – आठ जिलों में से एक – औरंगाबाद संभाग के रूप में, और परागनी जिले के पूर्व में जलगाँव जिले के उत्तर में स्थित है. और बुलढाणा जिला, दक्षिण में बीड जिले और पश्चिम में औरंगाबाद जिले द्वारा.

District Council Question Paper 2020

1. Combined contraceptive pills give protection from the following EXCEPT :

  • a. Cancer of ovary
  • b. Cancer of endometrium
  • c. Cancer of cervix
  • d. Ectopic pregnancy

2. A woman presents with heavy foul smelling discharge with sharply demarcated ulcers without induration on the perineum and the labia majora. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is also present. What is the most probable diagnosis?

  • a. Gonorrhoea
  • b. Tuberculosis
  • c. Chancroid
  • d. Trichomoniasis

3. A 28 year old woman develops amenorrhea after having dilatation and curettage. The most likely diagnosis is :

  • a. Kallmann syndrome
  • b. Asherman syndrome
  • c. Anorexia nervosa
  • d. Turner syndrome

4. Which of the following tests is NOT used for diagnosing syphilis?

  • a. Frie’s test
  • b. Direct fluorescent antibody test
  • c. FTA – ABS test
  • d. TPHA

5. Fitz‐Hugh ‐ Curtis syndrome involving per hepatitis is present in the following :

  • a. Moniliasis
  • b. Syphilis
  • c. Tuberculosis
  • d. Gonorrhoea

6. Which of the following cause/causes bacterial vaginosis?

  1. Gardnerella
  2. Mycoplasma
  3. Ureaplasma urealyticum

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  • a. 1 only
  • b. 2 and 3 only
  • c. 1 and 3 only
  • d. 1, 2 and 3

7. Where are antisperm antibodies usually present?

  • a. Uterus
  • b. Vagina
  • c. Fallopian tube
  • d. Cervix

8. Modified Bishop’s score includes all EXCEPT :

  • a. Cervical length and dilatation
  • b. Consistency of cervix
  • c. Position of os
  • d. Position of occiput

9. The engaging diameter of brow presentation is :

  • a. Mento‐vertical
  • b. Submento‐vertical
  • c. Suboccipito‐bregmatic
  • d. Submento‐bregmatic

10. Intramuscular injection of iron dextran is given by ‘Z’ technique to :

  • a. Alleviate the pain
  • b. Decrease the incidence of infection
  • c. Reduce the staining
  • d. Increase the iron absorption

ZP Answer key 2020

11. Which of the following is/are the risk factors for acute pelvic inflammatory disease in women?

  1. Intercourse during menstruation
  2. Multiple sex partners

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  • a. 1 only
  • b. 2 only
  • c. Both 1 and 2
  • d. Neither 1 nor 2

12. The umbilical cord normally contains :

  • a. Two arteries and two veins
  • b. One artery and one vein
  • c. Two arteries and one vein
  • d. One artery and two veins

13. Painless genital ulcer is found in which one of the following genital infections?

  • a. Granuloma inguinale
  • b. Chancroid
  • c. Lymphogranuloma venereum
  • d. Herpes simplex

14. Medical management of tubular ectopic pregnancy can be done in the following EXCEPT :

  • a. Period of gestation 5 weeks
  • b. β HCG level more than 10,000 IU
  • c. Absent foetal cardiac activity
  • d. Gestational sac diameter 3 cm

15. Cholestasis may lead to the following complications EXCEPT :

  • a. Intrauterine foetal death
  • b. Meconium stained liquor
  • c. Preterm labour
  • d. Neonatal jaundice

Jalna Zilla Parishad Answer key 2018 

16. Which of the following genital infections is associated with preterm labour?

  • a. Human Papillomavirus
  • b. Trichomonas vaginalis
  • c. Monilial vaginitis
  • d. Bacterial vaginosis

17. Multiple pregnancy is associated with an increased incidence of the following EXCEPT :

  • a. Hyperemesis gravidarum
  • b. Congenital malformations
  • c. Pregnancy induced hypertension
  • d. Post date pregnancy

18. Which of the following conditions of the endometrium is associated with a significantly increased risk of development of cancer?

  • a. Simple hyperplasia
  • b. Complex hyperplasia with atypia
  • c. Simple atypical hyperplasia
  • d. Complex hyperplasia

19. Surgical staging is done for all the genital malignancies EXCEPT :

  • a. Ovarian malignancy
  • b. Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia
  • c. Endometrial carcinoma
  • d. Fallopian tube malignancy

20. B‐Lynch suture for atonic postpartum haemorrhage.

  • a. compresses the uterus
  • b. ligates the uterine arteries
  • c. ligates the utero‐ovarian anastomosis
  • d. ligates the ovarian vessels
Jalna ZP Answer key

21. Regarding ‘Delancy’s levels of vaginal support’, consider the following pairs :

  1. Level I ………. Supports distal urethra perineal body
  2. Level II ………. Supports mid‐vagina
  3. Level III ………. Supports apical defect

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 1 and 3 only
  • b. 2 only
  • c. 2 and 3 only
  • d. 1, 2 and 3

22. Regarding “conjoined twins”, which of the following statements is/are true?

  1. These are always monozygotic
  2. These result when division occurs before the embryonic disc is formed
  3. Most common variety is thoracopagus

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  • a. 1 and 2 only
  • b. 2 and 3 only
  • c. 1 and 3 only
  • d. 1, 2 and 3

23. The appropriate treatment for the baby of a woman who is hbeag positive but HBeAg negative is.

  • a. Both active and passive immunisation soon after birth
  • b. Passive immunisation soon after birth but active immunisation after one year of age
  • c. Only active immunisation soon after birth
  • d. Only passive immunisation soon after birth

24. Consider the following pairs regarding foetal heart during labour :

  1. Term …. Description
  2. Early decelerations …. Most common during labour and are due to cord compression
  3. Late decelerations …. Result due to any process leading to maternal hypotension, placental insufficiency or excessive uterine activity
  4. Variable decelerations …. Are due to head compression leading to vagal stimulation

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 1 and 2
  • b. 2 and 3
  • c. 1 and 3
  • d. 2 only

25. A 26 year old woman P1L1 reports with High Grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion (HGSIL) on Pap smear (Papanicolaou smear). Further management for her is :

  • a. VIA, VILI
  • b. Colposcopy and directed biopsy
  • c. LEEP
  • d. Conisation
Jalna Zilla Parishad Answer key 2018 : Jalna ZP Answer key

26. With reference to the displacement of uterus, the treatment of choice for genuine stress urinary incontinence is :

  • a. Kegel’s perineal exercises
  • b. Kelly’s placation
  • c. TVT‐O mid urethral tape
  • d. Periurethral injection of bulking agents

27. Regarding placental separation in III stage of labour, consider the following statements :

  1. Separation of placenta occurs at deciduas spongiosa
  2. In Shultz method, separation of placenta starts at centre
  3. In Mathew Duncan’s method, separation begins at margin

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • a. 1 only
  • b. 1 and 2 only
  • c. 2 and 3 only
  • d. 1, 2 and 3

28. A 16 year old girl presents with primary amenorrhea with absent vagina, cervix and uterus in the presence of normal secondary sexual characteristics. Ovaries are present on USG. The most probable diagnosis is :

  • a. Klinefelter’s syndrome
  • b. Androgen Insensitivity syndrome
  • c. Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome
  • d. Prader Willi syndrome

29. A 32 year old woman is noted to have 1200 cc of blood loss following a spontaneous vaginal delivery and delivery of placenta. The uterine fundus is palpated and noted to be firm. Which of the following is the most likely treatment for this patient?

  • a. B’ lynch suture
  • b. Surgical repair of cervical tear
  • c. Intramuscular prostaglandin
  • d. Replacement of inverted uterus

30. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding physiology of menstruation?

  1. LH surge precedes ovulation
  2. There are two peaks in serum estradiol levels, first in follicular and second in luteal phase
  3. Serum progesterone has only one peak i.e., in luteal phase

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  • a. 1 only
  • b. 1 and 2 only
  • c. 2 and 3 only
  • d. 1, 2 and 3
Jalna Zilla Parishad Answer key 2018 : Jalna ZP Answer key

31. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) of dispersion?

  1. Mode
  2. Median
  3. Standard Deviation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • a. 1 and 2 only
  • b. 3 only
  • c. 2 and 3 only
  • d. 1, 2 and 3

32. Which among the following is/are the examples of primordial prevention?

  1. Adopting healthy lifestyles from childhood
  2. Immunization of infants
  3. Screening of cervical cancer

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  • a. 1 only
  • b. 1 and 2 only
  • c. 1 and 3 only
  • d. 1, 2 and 3

33. The appropriate statistical test to find out obesity as a significant risk factor for breast cancer is :

  • a. Student’s paired‘t’ test
  • b. Student’s unpaired ‘t’ test
  • c. Chi‐square test
  • d. Wilcoxon signed rank test

34. In a case control study, confounding factors can be minimized by the following EXCEPT :

  • a. Matching of variables such as age and sex
  • b. Randomization during selection
  • c. Stratification during analysis
  • d. Increasing sample size for cases and controls

35. Which one of the following is FALSE regarding confounding factor in epidemiological studies?

  • a. Associated both with exposure and disease
  • b. Distributed equally between study and control groups
  • c. Independent risk factor for disease in question
  • d. Source of bias is interpretation
Jalna ZP Answer key

36. Denominator in calculation of case fatality rate is :

  • a. Total number of deaths due to all causes
  • b. Total number of hospital admissions
  • c. Total number of cases due to the disease concerned
  • d. Total number of deaths due to the disease concerned

37. A well of contaminated water resulting in an epidemic of acute watery diarrhoea is a typical example for.

  • a. Common source, single exposure epidemic
  • b. Common source, continuous exposure epidemic
  • c. Slow epidemic
  • d. Propagated epidemic

38. An important measure of communicability of a disease is.

  • a. Incidence rate
  • b. Case fatality rate
  • c. Prevalence rate
  • d. Secondary attack rate

39. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding case fatality rate?

  • a. Very useful indicator for both acute and chronic diseases
  • b. One of the measures related to virulence
  • c. It is the ratio of deaths to cases expressed as percentage
  • d. Variation can occur for the same disease because of changes in the agent factors

40. Farmer’s lung is caused by the inhalation of :

  • a. Grain dust with actinomycetes
  • b. Sugarcane dust
  • c. Silica dust
  • d. Cotton fibre dust
Jalna ZP Answer key

41. Suraksha Clinics are conducted under the aegis of which National Health Programme?

  • a. Revised National Tuberculosis Control programme
  • b. Iodine Deficiency Disorders Programme
  • c. National AIDS Control Programme
  • d. Reproductive and Child Health Programme

42. Mean + 2 S.D. contains.

  • a. 68.3 % values
  • b. 91.2 % values
  • c. 95.4 % values
  • d. 99.7 % values

43. Infant Mortality Rate is expressed per :

  • a. 1000 pregnancies
  • b. 1000 live births
  • c. 1000 under five children
  • d. 100,000 live births

44. Which of the following tests is NOT used for checking quality of pasteurisation of milk?

  • a. Phosphatase test
  • b. Standard Plate count
  • c. Coliform count
  • d. Orthotolidine test
Jalna Zilla Parishad Answer key 2018 : Jalna ZP Answer key

45. Which of the following are components of epidemiological triad?

  • a. Sensitivity, specificity and predictive value
  • b. Time, place and person distribution
  • c. Agent, host and environmental factors
  • d. Prevalence, incidence and attack rate

46. By applying the principles of ergonomics which of the following can be improved?

  1. Designing of equipment and tools
  2. Human efficiency
  3. Layout of place of work
  4. Reduction in industrial accidents

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  • a. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • c. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • d. 1, 3 and 4 only

47. The risk of disease is measured by.

  • a. Prevalence Rate
  • b. Incidence Rate
  • c. Attrition Rate
  • d. Fatality Rate

48. Tetanus spores can only be killed by. 

  • a. Large doses of penicillin
  • b. Anti tetanus Serum
  • c. Tetanus toxoid
  • d. Gamma irradiation

49. Which is/are the correct statements regarding the cut off points for the diagnosis of anemia?

  1. Haemoglobin for adult males is 13 g/dl
  2. Haemoglobin for adult non‐pregnant female is 12 g/dl
  3.  for Haemoglobin adult pregnant female is 11 g/dl
  4. Haemoglobin for children six months to six years of age is 11 g/dl

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  • a. 1 only
  • b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • c. 2 and 4 only
  • d. 1 and 3 only

50. Health functionary at PHC level is :

  • a. ASHA
  • b. Anganwadi Worker
  • c. Health Assistant (Female)
  • d. Health Worker (Female)
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